本试卷考试内容为:。分第I卷(选择题)和第II卷,共页,满分分,考试时间分钟。注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题上。
2.考生作答时,请将答案答在答题上,在本试卷上答题无效。按照题号在各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效。
3.选择题答案使用2B铅笔填涂,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号使用05毫米的黑色签字笔或碳素笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。
4.保持答题面清洁,不破损。考试结束后,将本试卷自行保存,答题交回。第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。’s the white building?
A. It’s a gym.
B. It’s the library.
C. It’s the dining hall.
2. What is the woman doing?
A. Writing a letter.
B. Surfing the Internet.
C. Playing a word game.
3. What will the woman do tomorrow?
A. Pick up the man.
B. See a doctor.
C. Finish her work.
4. Where are the speakers?
A. In America.
B. In China.
C. In England.
5. What has the man done?
A. He sent something to a wrong place.
B. He spent too much money.
C. He bought the wrong thing.
第二节 (共15小题;每题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A,B,C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6题。听第段材料,回答第题。’s husband.
C. The woman’s workmate.
10. How many canals are there in Venice?
A. 100.
B. 115.
C. 150.
11. What is Basilica di San Marco?
A. A palace.
B. A square.
C. A church.
听第段材料,回答第题。Who is the owner of the the dog?
A. The speakers’ neighbor.
B. The speakers’ roommate.
C. The speakers’ teacher.
13. What the the man think of the dog?
A. It is cute.
B. It is clever.
C. It is dirty.
14. What do we know about the owner of the dog?
A. He always leaves the dog alone at home.
B. He often cleans up after the dog.
C. He will move out soon.
听第9段材料,回答第1至第1题。
’s afraid it’s too expensive.
B. He thinks hairdryers are for girls.
C. He thinks it will change his hair.
17. What solution do the speakers come to?
A. The man will buy a hairdryer.
B. The man will change the time that he showers.
C. The man will change his hair style.
听第段材料,回答第题。第二部分:英语知识运用(共两节, 满分45分)
第一节:单项填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑Are you sure that the party came to _______ power in _______ 1960s?
A. a; the
B. a; 不填
C.不填; the
D. 不填; 不填
22. The sports meet will start next Wednesday. What _______ have you entered for?
A. events
B. activities
C. medals
D. programs
23. I have been studying hard _______ I won’t fail the coming exam.
A. so that
B. even if
C. as if
D. as soon as
24. You _______ your climbing shoes. Aren’t you going to climb the mountain with us today?
A. won’t wear
B. hadn’t worn
C. are not wearing
D. haven’t been wearing
25. Mr. James said _______ that this was the worst mistake he had ever made.
A. otherwise
B. afterwards
C. hopefully
D. fortunately
26. All morning as she waited for the medical report from the doctor, her nervousness _______.
A. grew
B has grown
C. is growing
D. had grown
27. After two days, our food _______ , and we had to return to the camp.
A. gave up
B. gave away
C. gave out
D. gave in
28. Timmy is glad to be a volunteer _______ community activities.
A. by
B. on
C. to
D. for
29. -- I don’t know my way around the school.
-- Come, I _______ you.
A. show
B. will show
C. have shown
D. showed
30. The old professor made full use of the time to _______ all possible ways to increase rice production.
A. design
B.serve
C. explore
D. found
31. This area is beautiful. Unfortunately, it _______ by careless visitors.
A. destroyed
B. was destroyed
C. destroys
D. is being destroyed
32. -- Jeremy, would you like to go hiking with us ?
-- Thanks, but I prefer to _______ TV at home.
A. watch
B.watching
C. be watching
D. being watching
33. -- Could I use your computer while you are out tonight?
-- Of course you _______.
A. should
B. can
C. could
D. need
34. We were going out for a Christmas meal together _______ the accident happened.
A. unless
B. until
C. while
D. when
35. -- In order to improve your spoken English, you need to practice more.
-- _______. Practice makes perfect.
A. Certainly, go ahead
B. Well, it depends
C. I don’t think so
D. I couldn’t agree more
第二节 完型填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上涂黑。“Hurry up, Chris,” my dad said in a low voice. “He’s gonna get away. You need to
36
him now.” I was pointing my
37
at a duck. It was a(n)
38
day for me. Shooting those ducks would make my father
39
, but I just couldn’t. My father
40
fishing and hunting ducks. I thought fishing was boring,
41
Dad hardly ever asked me to go with him. I had gone hunting with Dad before but
42
brought a gun, because I didn’t own one, and his were too big for me. The gun was a present for my birthday. I’d been
43
almost every evening.
I
44
I could hit that duck, but I didn’t want to. I had never
45
killing things, and I hated people who killed animals for no reason at all. I liked
46
. I didn’t want to hurt it.
I pointed the gun at the duck. He was trying hard to find food and had to keep a careful eye on his
47
at the same time, and now my dad asked me to kill him so we could have one nice
48
. I hated myself for
49
pointing the gun at the duck, but I hated to
50
my father’s feelings too.
“I… I can’t tell which is the duck,” I explained.
“Just try, Chris. I know you can do it,” Dad
51
me.
“Thanks, Dad.” I
52
to myself. “Your words just make it harder for me.” My eyes filled with tears as my brain had made a(n)
53
—I wouldn’t shoot the duck.
“You really don’t want to shoot him, do you?” Dad quietly cut in on my
54
. I was too choked (哽咽的) to say anything.
55
, a nod was enough.
36. A. stop B.shoot C.follow D. cover
37. A. camera B. finger C. knife D. gun
38. A. difficult B. exciting C. special
D. busy
39. A. angry B. fresh C. proud D. sad
40. A. started B. allowed C. tried D. loved
41. A. but B. so C. and
D. for
42. A. never B. seldom C. sometimes
D. ever
43. A. watching
B. working
C. practicing D. performing
44. A. knew B. explained C. realized D. imagined
45. A. hated B. enjoyed C. seen
D. missed
46. A. success
B. truth
C. nature D. peace
47. A. children B. behavior C. weight D. enemies
48. A. dream B. idea C. meal D. day
49. A. even B. still C. again D. almost
50. A. share B. hurt C. hide D. consider
51. A. persuaded B. warned C. reminded D. encouraged
52. A. listened B. promised C. cried D. lied
53. A. decision
B. difference C. effort D. mistake
54. A. time
B. thought
C. action D. plan
55. A. Sadly B. Quickly C. Suddenly D. Luckily
第三部分:阅读理解(共20小题,每题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。A
My new teacher is cool. Her name is Paula so we call her Miss Paula.
The first time we met her she said we are going to be good friends and that good friends are always nice to each other.
Miss Paula has been teaching us a lot of things. Some of us used to get in trouble for talking in the hallway. Miss Paula says she can’t change the rule that we can’t make noise in the hallway but we can still talk to each other. She is teaching us sign language. I already know how to say “hello” and “how are you” with my hands. Now we love it when we have to walk somewhere and we are always quiet except for a laugh or two.
Miss Paula likes everybody even Sam and nobody likes Sam. He never does what he’s told but now he is doing better. Miss Paula says every single one of us is perfect and beautiful just the way we are. I guess that includes Sam.
This week at school was really the best ever. I didn’t even get in trouble when I thought I would, because I spilled (洒) milk on my homework and had to hand it in when it was still wet. Miss Paula just smiled and asked, “What’s this?” So I told her what happened. Miss Paula put it near the window to make it dry. She said the sun had been waiting for such an important job as this and would be happy to help us.
Well, I have to go and get ready for bed now. I have school in the morning and I want to wake up early so I will have time to pick Miss Paula some flowers.
56. What do we know about Miss Paula?
A. She changed the school rules.
B. She is very kind to her students.
C. She is strict with the writer.
D. She uses sign language in class.
57. According to Paragraph4, Sam_______.
A. dislikes his new teacher
B. is often praised by Miss Paula
C. has made some progress
D. is one the the writer’s best friends
58. How did the writer probably feel when he handed in his homework?
A. Worried.
B. Bored.
C. Excited.
D. Relaxed.
59. We can learn from the passage that the writer _______.
A. is a bit afraid of her new teacher
B. always picked her teacher some flowers
C.wrote this article in the morning
D. loves and respects her new teacher
B
Every fall, many Jewish people around the world celebrate the holiday of Sukkot (结茅节). They build huts (茅舍) in their backyards, and if it is warm and dry outside, they live in those huts for seven days and nights. Living in a sukkah (苏克棚) is meant to remind Jewish people that for 40 years their ancestors (祖先) lived in huts in the desert. In modern times, it has also become a reminder that many people do not have a place to call home.
In 2010, an American reporter named Hoshua Foer was building his own sukkah when he came up with an idea. He wondered what it would be like to have a competition for people around the world to use their imaginations to create modern sukkahs. It would be a design competition. But the sukkah would have to be built according to Jewish laws. These laws are found in an ancient book called Talmud. Some of the laws are surprising!
* It can be built on a boat.
* It must have at least two and a half walls.
Joshua got in touch with his friend Roger Bennett. They announced the competition in May 2010. More than 600 designers sent plans. Twelve were chosen as finalists (参加决赛者). Then those finalists were each given money so they could build their sukkahs in a park in New York City. People building the final sukkahs were from the United States, France, England, Japan, and Germany.
More than 17,000 people voted (投票) for the winners. At the end of the competition, the sukkahs were sold. The money was then given to a group that helps homeless people.
60. We can learn from Paragraph 1 that _______.
A. Jewish ancestors lived in huts for many years
B. the holiday of Sukkot is celebrated in spring
C. Jewish people spend seven days building huts during the holiday
D. the holiday is meant to remind people many people still live in the desert
61. According to Joshua Foer, _______.
A. imaginations are very important to win the competition
B. sukkahs can be built at any place and in any shape
C. the winning sukkahs will be included in Talmud
D. competitors should follow laws made by him
62. Which of the following is TRUE about the first competition?
A. More than 600 sukkahs were built in a park in New York City.
B. The winning sukkahs were sold to help homeless people.
C. Only American people took part in the competition.
D. There were 12 judges voting for the winners.
63. What’s the passage mainly about?
A. How Jewish people design and build modern sukkahs.
B. How Jewish people celebrate the holiday of Sukkot.
C. A Jewish holiday reminds people of their ancestors.
D. A Jewish tradition becomes the idea for a competition.
C
When Regis Mngwiro and the other villagers moved to a new place in southeastern Zimbabwe, Africa, they were happy to find a lake nearby. Now, they would no longer have to walk long distances looking for water. At last, they had a source (来源) of water what they call their own.
But several days later, two young boys saw something they had never seen before—a huge animal was standing at the edge of the lake, eating grass. When the animal saw the boys, it walked into the lake and disappeared (消失) beneath the water.
Regis looked into the story of the big creature that vanished into to the lake. “When I took a closer look at the dung (粪便), I realized that it was from a hippo (河马),” he said.
Twelve hippos were living in the lake. The villagers were worried. In the countrry of Zimbabwe, hippos attack humans more often than lions do. The hippos would often stay on the village side of the lake all day. This meant that the villagers could not go near the lake until the hippos got out. It was too long a wait for the villagers, because they needed the water from the lake to survive (生存). “This is the only source of fresh water in the village,” said a villager. “There is no way we can avoid this lake.” So the women began moving in groups whenever they went to get water from the lake. Before collecting water, they made sure no hippos were nearby. The men began fishing in pairs, with one man always looking out for hippos.
It took time, but these days, the hippos and humans live side by side. The villagers say that when the hippos find people coming, they swim slowly to the other side of the lake and mind their own business. The villagers do not go into the part of the lake where the hippos usually stay. They have learned to share the lake they both need to survive.
64. Before Regis and other villagers moved to the new place, _______.
A. Regis had never heard of hippos
B. they had their own source of water
C. it was not easy for them to find water
D. some of them had been attacked by hippos
65. The underlined word “vanished” in Paragraph 3 can best be replaced by “_______”.
A. disappeared
B. stood
C. jumped
D. fell
66. When the villagers found the hippos, they _______.
A. wanted to kill them
B. stopped collecting water from the lake
C. tried to drive them away
D. became careful when they went near the lake
67. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Living near a lake
B. Saving the hippos
C. Sharing a lake with hippos
D. Looking for water in Africa
D
Members of the public can visit the White House now. Requests (请求) must be made through one’s Member of Congress (国会议员). These self-guided tours are allowed from 7:30 am to 11:00 am Tuesday through Thursday, 7:30 am to 1:00 pm Saturdays (except for holidays). Requests can be made up to six months in advance and no less than 21 days in advance. All White House tours are free.
If you wish to visit the White House and are a citizen of a foreign country, please call your embassy (大使馆) for help in making a tour request.
All visitors 18 years of age or older will be asked to present a valid (有效的) photo ID. All foreign visitors must present their passport. All other forms of foreign identification will not be accepted.
All visitors should call the 24-hour Visitors Office information line at 202-456-7041 to decide if any last minute changes have been made in the tour schedule (时间表).
Forbidden Items
◆Cameras or video recorders
◆Handbags, book bags, backpacks or purses
◆Food, drinks, or cigarettes
◆Any pointed objects
◆Guns, or knives of any size
The U.S. Secret Service has the right to forbid any other personal items. Umbrellas, car keys, and cell phones (including those with cameras) are permitted. However, guests will not be allowed to use cell phones inside the White House.
Restrooms/ Public telephones
The nearest restrooms and public telephones to the White House are in the Ellipse Visitor Pavilion (the park area south of the White House). Restrooms or public telephones are not available at the White House.
The Disabled
Please contact your Member of Congress if you cannot hear or see clearly and need help during your White House tour. Guide animals are allowed in the White House.
68. When can people visit the White House?
A. At 9:00 am on Monday.
B. At 10:00 am on Wednesday.
C. At 1:00 pm on Friday.
D. At 11:00 am on Sunday.
69. We can learn from Paragraph 2-4 that _______.
A. people must call the information line before 10:00 pm
B. children below 18 are not allowed to visit the White House
C. foreign visitors must bring their passport to visit the White House
D. only very few foreign visitors are allowed to visit the White House
70.Which of the following is forbidden to be taken into the White House?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71. We can learn from the passage that in the White House people can _______.
A. have a tour guide
B. bring guide animals if necessary
C. use the restrooms there
D. make calls using their own cell phones
E
Music probably isn’t the main reason for where you choose to eat something, but restaurant owners put a lot of thought into what they play.
In a recent article about music’s role in restaurant design, author Mark Brandau details the different ways sound influences (影响) sales. Here are a few “notes” to keep in mind the next time you need to pick a restaurant:
It’s someone’s job to design playlists. Restaurant owners hire (雇用) experts to build music playlists for different times of the day. A restaurant owner says, “Lively songs encourage quick dining and faster table turns at meal time.”
What you hear at lunch won’t be what you hear at dinner. And what you hear after dinner will be something totally different. If a restaurant wants to increase late-night sales, music is very important to creating the right atmosphere.
Music builds brands (品牌). Nick Vojnovic, president of Little Greek, had been in the business for 20 years. He began to realize how important music is to the restaurant experience after listening to a manager from The Cheesecake Factory speak about using music to develop brand identity.
Where have you heard that before? Restaurants may be using the same music providers. Ambiance Radio provides playlists for Little Greek in Florida, and also Schlotzsky’s and Union Square Cafe in New York City. Vojnovic, who started his business at Chili’s, pointed out that years ago, background music was changed only once per quarter.
Music helps restaurants choose diners. Brandau explains that some restaurants would like to turn up the music, not to bother (使恼怒) certain groups of customers, but to stay true to their main diners. If college kids are a restaurant’s main diners, the restaurant will surely play music that makes older people feel uninvited.
72. According to Nick Vojnovic, _______.
A. music can influence diners’ eating speed
B. a restaurant shouldn’t often change its background music
C. he realized the importance of music when he started his business
D. what music a restaurant plays makes it different from other restaurants
73. We can learn from the passage that _______.
A. the restaurant owners often play music they like
B. Mark Brandau is an expert at designing restaurants
C. some restaurants use music to influence people who eat there
D. at meal time restaurants should play slow music to help diners relax
74. For whom is the passage mainly written?
A. People who eat in restaurants.
B. Experts who design music.
C. Music providers.
D. Restaurant owners.
75. The passage mainly discusses the relationship between music and _______.
A. diners
B. restaurant sales
C. eating habits
D. menus
注意:请将1-75题的答案用2B铅笔填涂在客观题答题卡上
第II卷(非选择题,共35分)
注意:用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔在答题纸上作答。
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节
短文(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
The weekend is coming again! And I will be as busy
as a bee.
Saturday morning, I have to rush to my
76. __________
math class. After it is f
, I will have a dance class.
77. __________
I like dancing
it gives me a chance to shape
78. __________
my body and keep me h
. I’ll pay a visit to my
79. __________
(外婆) on Sunday. I’m quite looking forward
80. __________
to s
her! We haven’t met each other for a long time
81. __________
and I’m sure we will have a good time t
! On Sunday
82. __________
night, I will watch my
(最喜爱的)TV program “Happy
83. __________
Camp”. I find
really interesting. It always makes me
84. __________
laugh out loud. Besides, a lot of stars
(出现) in it.
85. __________
第二节
书面表达(满分分)
How is everything?______________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________
Have you taken any outdoor activities recently? I’m looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
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